Anorgasmia vs diminished level of arousal

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vera2023
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Joined: Thu Jan 05, 2023 6:48 am
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Anorgasmia vs diminished level of arousal

Unread post by vera2023 »

I just wrote my introductory story here. I have suffered from pssd for over 20 years. I have been accustomed to think I'm suffering of anorgasmia. But I recently experienced something which got me highly aroused. Now I'm thinking that while suffering from this, could the reason of not getting orgasms be that I haven't been aroused enough while suffering of this condition.

For me PSSD means I don't get aroused like I used to and masturbation doesn't lead to anything, and if I feel desire, it doesn't lead to any sensations in the genitals. The things that used to turn me on don't make me feel anything in the genitals. And of course I can no longer orgasm.

But recently I got very aroused by something another person did, and I am thinking that could this anorgasmia for me be after all about not getting aroused enough in order to have an orgasm? And I highlight here that getting as aroused as I recently got wasn't this difficult before PSSD.

How is it with others? Have you felt as aroused as before pssd but still don't get orgasm? Or is the problem that you don't even get as aroused /aroused the same way? It is said that getting orgasm gets more difficult with SSRI, so I am just thinking that could this be the case with me. Being able to feel something gave me hope, and now I'm hoping that my problem would have been the insufficient arousal level, and now being able to get very aroused gave me hope.
Darman
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Joined: Thu Jul 01, 2021 3:23 am
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Re: Anorgasmia vs diminished level of arousal

Unread post by Darman »

I think they are both related very strongly. At least that's my experience.
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